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Originally Posted by Thrift Store Scott
So we are in agreement that having someone else cause you to achieve orgasm through their direct and purposeful action is considered "losing your virginity", regardless of what specific act or action might have been committed?
That sounds reasonable.
I'm sorry about the legalese, but I wanted to close off any loopholes in the definition.
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Define "direct".
In other words, does it encompass a stripper dancing in private just for you? I don't think it should.
