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Originally Posted by playing_games
I don't know but thinking like this seems a bit silly to me as I for one think that when you exchange sexual pleasure with someone, you've had sex whether there was penetration or not
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I agree, hence my question. But even if we went with the "penetrative" definition (which makes sense, I suppose, but seems awfully de-humanized if you ask me), I don't see why should we have different set of criteria for homo- and heterosexuals. Moving on, should we make the criteria for people open to both genders a sum of those two sets? And, if someone is unsure of his sexuality and have slept eg. with women before realizing he is actually attracted to men, does it make his loss of virginity cancelled? Nonsense, I'd say. Therefore, the definition should be universal.
